I'm joyful that a friend has begun to seriously dig into God's Word, investigating for Himself the richness and truth of the Bible and longing after faithful teaching :) Both of us then agreed to sharpen one another as we wrestle with God's Word and one of the ways we're doing that is by discussing various questions, issues and maybe even theological thoughts. Personally, I think I'm going to learn more from him than he does from me as he has a gift of asking insightful and thought-provoking questions! (which I don't have a knack for...).Anyhow, I'm going to name this series of discourse as "Conversations" and the first one is my response to this insightful question posed:
Why did Jesus get baptized?
The Baptism of Jesus (Matt 3:13-17--ESV)
13 Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to John, to be baptized by him. 14 John would have prevented him, saying, "I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?" 15But Jesus answered him, "Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Then he consented. 16And when Jesus was baptized, immediately he went up from the water, and behold, the heavens were opened to him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and coming to rest on him; 17and behold, a voice from heaven said, "This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased."Firstly, context...
Baptism is strictly a NT practice and as you study Jesus' baptism it is important to look back to see where/when the first baptism is. And that's just before this passage, at verse 11. "I (John the Baptist) baptize you with water for repentance, but he who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire." So...John the Baptist's (JB) baptism was one of repentance. A repentance which to prepare oneself for the coming of Christ (which is JB's purpose in life.. to prepare the way). More importantly, JB's baptism does not confer the Holy Spirit. Only Christ's baptism does (v11)**
So, it's pretty obvious that Jesus didn't have to be baptized...especially not the baptism of John. Simply cos he was sinless and he was the ONE... the long-awaited Messiah. In fact, John pretty much asked Jesus to baptize him! (v14) Also, Jesus was already "filled with the Spirit" from His birth! (Lk 1:35).
When then? I would like to suggest a few reasons:
(1) Jesus' change from Private Life to Public Ministry.
In the OT, prophets, priests & Kings were always anointed with oil before they started their ministry. In the NT, that oil is now "replaced" with the Holy Spirit. Remember that many practices in the OT were but a shadow and a representation of Christ and what He brings. In the same way, Christ was "anointed or filled with the Holy Spirit" (though not technically) as a symbol of Him beginning His public ministry.
(2) Encouragement for Christ Jesus, fully Man.
This was the event before Jesus' "showdown" with Satan in the desert (Matt 4, Lk 4). Imagine the special joy Jesus must have felt at His baptism... it was a Trinitarian event as God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit were overtly present. It was a time of comfort and joy before Jesus faced evil face to face.
(3) Sign that Jesus is the Son of God
John 1:32-34 states that JB bore witness to the decent of the Spirit in the form of a dove. And from that sign, JB recognized, without a shadow of a doubt, that Jesus was the Son of God.
(4) Jesus' identification with Man (most important reason to me)
Lastly, it is also connected with what you recently studied... specifically Hebrews 2:14-18. In that passage, Jesus, as man, was made like his brothers in every respect. This was so that He could fully and totally help us in every aspect of our lives. So, while Jesus needn't have gone through baptism, He did so to identify with us. It's like a CO queuing up for food at the Cookhouse with the rest of the Men... for the sake of identifying with them.
As you study Matthew, you'll realise that that was what Jesus did. He NEVER used His prerogative as the Son of God for His own gain or comfort. His powers of healing, etc was ONLY used to help others... be it physically, emotionally or spiritually. Even in the temptation by Satan (Matt 4), Jesus didn't use His might to banish Satan (it wasn't time), He used OT passages, the Word of God. It was meant to be an example for us to follow. To be so in tune with God's Word that when temptations or Satan come, we'll (like Jesus) use God's Word as a means to fight things off. This is also in line with the Sword of the Spirit in Eph 6:17.
All in all, this was Jesus' first "official" work on His part in displaying His obedience to the Father, His humility as a Saviour and His love for Man. "Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men" (Phil 2:5-7)
Going slightly further, Jesus opened the Sermon on the Mount with these words, "Blessed are the poor in spirit..." (Matt 5:3). The most powerful, memorable sermon in the world, and this is what He opens it with. One would imagine that He would proclaim Himself as King or something... but no. Not that Jesus recognized that He was spiritually bankrupt and that He was nothing without God (that's the short literal understanding of being poor in spirit) but that even as the Savior who has taken our sins at the Cross, Jesus was fully obedient to the Father, being our example in all things.
And all of that...began with His baptism.
**Disclaimer: This does not in any way imply that the act of Baptism = salvation or the giving of the Holy Spirit. It's your belief that sees the Holy Spirit enter your life. Baptism is the outward proclamation of that belief. In the early church, belief was often accompanied by immediate Baptism (Acts 2:38, Acts 19:1-5)
[Thoughts derived from the Holy Spirit, BSF notes & DA Carson]
